Practice Test 107
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Original cost Rs. 1,26,000, Salvage value – nil, Useful life – 6 years. Depreciation for the fourth year under sum of digits method will be

  • Solution

    Sum of the years’ digits depreciation method, like reducing balance method, is a type of accelerated depreciation technique that allocates higher depreciation expense in the earlier years of an asset’s useful life.
    Calculation of depreciation under this method can be summarized in the following 4 steps:

    Step 1: Calculate the sum of the years’ digits in an asset’s useful life
    Here the asset is having a useful life of 6 years, the sum of the years’ digits will be calculated as follows:
    Sum of years’ digits = 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21

    Step 2: Calculate the depreciable amount
    Depreciable amount, as with all depreciation methods, is equal to:
    Asset’s cost of acquisition or construction including any subsequent capital expenditure
    Less: Estimated residual value or scrap value at the end of the asset’s useful life
    Here depreciable amount = 1,26,000

    Step 3: Calculate the un-depreciated useful life
    Un-depreciated useful life is equal to the number of years in the asset’s useful life that have not yet been
    subjected to depreciation.
    Hence, for an asset that has a useful life of 6 years, the un-depreciated useful life to be used in calculating
    depreciation shall be 6 years in the first year of depreciation, 5 years in the second year and so on.

    Step 4: Calculate depreciation using the sum of years’ digits & un-depreciated useful life
    Depreciation using the sum of the years’ digits method can be calculated using the following formula:
    Depreciation expense = (un-depreciated useful life/ sum of the years’ digits) × depreciable amount
    Thus Depreciation for the fourth year under sum of digits method will be = 3/21 × 1,26,000 = Rs. 18,000.

Machinery costing Rs. 10,00,000 was purchased on 01.04.2009. The installation charges amounting Rs. 100,000 were incurred. The depreciation at 20% p.a. on straight line method
for the year ended 31st March 2010 will be

  • Solution

    Fixed installment or straight line method depreciates cost evenly throughout the useful life of the fixed
    asset.
    Straight line depreciation is calculated as follows:
    Depreciation per annum = (Cost – Residual Value) / Useful Life
    Where:
    Cost includes the initial and any subsequent capital expenditure.
    Residual Value is the estimated scrap value at the end of the useful life of the asset. As the residual value
    is expected to be recovered at the end of an asset’s useful life, there is no need to charge the portion of
    cost equaling the residual value.
    Useful Life is the estimated time period an asset is expected to be used from the time it is available for
    use to the time of its disposal or termination of use.
    Here Cost of the machinery = Rs. 10,00,000
    Add: Installation charges = 1,00,000
    Total cost of the machine = 11,00,000
    Depreciation/year = 11,00,000 × 20% = Rs. 2,20,000

X Y Z and Company employs a team of ten workers who were paid Rs. 1,000 each in the year ending Dec. 31, 2009. At the start of the year 2010 company raised salaries by 20%. The
amount of salaries for the year ended 31st Dec. 2010, will be

  • Solution

    Salaries for the year ending 31st Dec 2009 = 10 × 1,000 = Rs. 10,000
    Raise in salary = 20%
    So salaries for the year ending 31st Dec 2010 = 10,000 + 20% of 10,000 = Rs. 12,000.

2,000 shares of Rs. 100 each were issued to promoters of the company for their legal services, rendered in the formation of the company. For this, company credited share capital A/c and debited.

  • Solution

    A company may issue shares without cash to the promoters of the company for the services rendered by them by debiting goodwill account. Here 2,000 shares of Rs. 100 each were issued to a promoter of the company for their legal services, rendered in the formation of the company. For this, company credited Share Capital Account and debited Goodwill account by Rs. 2,00,000.

Goods costing Rs. 10,00,000 sent out to consignee at cost + 25%. Invoice value of goods will be

  • Solution

    Goods are normally sent on cost price to the consignee but some time the consignor makes the invoice at the selling price i.e. proforma invoice price. The idea is that consignee should not know the actual cost of the goods. In such cases the entries are made by the consignor in his books at the invoice price.
    Here the goods are sent to the consignee at cost + 25% Cost of goods sent = Rs. 10,00,000
    Let Invoice value of the goods sent = 10,00,000 + 25% of 10,00,000 = 12,50,000

  • Solution

    We know that Credit sales = closing receivables + cash received from receivables + bad debts + return
    inwards – opening receivables
    Thus closing receivables = credit sales – cash received from receivables – bills received from customers – bad debts – return inwards + opening receivables
    Credit sales = total sales – cash sales = 90,000 – 20,000 = 70,000
    Thus closing receivables = 70,000 – 20,000 – 10,000 – 3,000 – 1,000 + 20,000 = Rs. 56,000

A company issued Rs. 1,00,000 15%, debentures at a discount of 5%, redeemable after 10 years at a premium of 10%. Loss on issue of debentures will be

  • Solution

    Debenture is a certificate/instrument acknowledging a debt. It is issued generally by a public company to individuals/institutions who lend it money (invest in their debentures). For an investor investing in a debenture is just like investing in a fixed deposit with the difference that while he can withdraw the amount invested in a fixed deposit any time he/she likes with a loss of interest.. He cannot do so with a debenture. The amount invested on a debenture will be repaid only on the expiry of the period for which the debenture has been issued. if the debentures were originally issued at a discount and redeemed at premium then the case of loss on issue of debentures arise.

    Here A Co. issued Rs. 1,00,000 15% Debentures at 5% discount, redeemable at 10% premium after 10 years.

    The discount on issue of debentures = 5% of 1,00,000 = Rs. 5,000
    The premium on redemption of debentures = 10% of 1,00,000 = Rs. 10,000
    Thus total loss on issue of debentures = 5,000 + 10,000 = Rs. 15,000

Z Ltd. purchased plant and machinery for Rs. 2,00,000 payable as to Rs. 65,000.00 in cash and the balance by an issue of 6% debentures of Rs. 1,000 each at a discount of
10%. Discount amount will be

  • Solution

    Total value of plant and machine purchased = Rs. 2,00,000
    Payment made in cash = 65,000
    Remaining amount to be paid by issue of 6%debentures = 1,35,000
    Value per debenture after discount = Rs. 900
    Thus number of shares to be issued = 1,35,000/900 = 150 debentures
    Face Value of debentures issued = 150 × 1000 = Rs. 1,50,000.
    Thus Discount amount will be = 1,50,000 – 1,35,000 = Rs. 15,000.

V.K. Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 100 each (Rs. 60 called up) issued at par to Mohan on which he had paid Rs. 20 per share. Out of these 15 shares were reissued to Sohan as Rs. 60 paid up for Rs. 45 per share. Amount transferred to capital reserve will be

  • Solution

    When the shares forfeited are reissued at discount, Bank account is debited by the amount received and Share capital account is credited by the paid up amount. The amount of discount allowed is debited to Share Forfeited Account. This is for adjusting the amount of discount so allowed from the amount forfeited at the time of forfeiture.

    Now the amount of discount allowed on reissue of shares at the most can be equal to the forfeited amount on such shares. In that case the share forfeited account after reissue will show a zero balance. But in case, this amount of discount is less than the amount forfeited, the remaining forfeited amount will be profit for the company. This profit is a capital gain to the company and is transferred to Capital Reserve account.

    In the above question discount on shares reissued = number of shares reissued × discount allowed per share = 15 × 15 = Rs. 225
    Amount available for the reissued shares in shares forfeiture account = number of shares reissued × amount forfeited per share = 15 × (20) = Rs. 300

    The surplus amount to be transferred to capital reserve account = 300 – 225 = Rs. 75

Securities premium is recorded in

  • Solution

    Securities premium is recorded in balance sheet under heading ‘reserves and Surplus’.

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